<HTML>1. The Book of the Dead is a non-royal text which didn't achieve final
form until the 7th cent. BCE. Although the protestations of innocence,
not confession, in chapter 25 relate to many moral crimes, there is no
evidence that the treatment of (foreign) slaves was included.
2. Would the Philistines be influenced by Egyptian religion (1 Sam.6:6)?
3. "Moses" in Egyptian means "son of", like Thutmoses. (Does Paroah's
daughter know Hebrew?) "kaved lev" is a Hebrew idiom, not an Egyptian
cognate.
At the same time, permit me to applaud your ingenuity. Textual
commentary is not a precise science. Peshat usually comes down to the
question of which explanation is most plausible. I could be (and often
am) wrong!</HTML>
